Which of the following statements is correct in reference to vaccine-preventable diseases
A. Immunisation programs have markedly reduced the incidence of vaccine-preventable diseases in children.
B. Today, a substantial percentage of morbidity and mortality from vaccine-preventable childhood diseases occurs in older adolescents and adults.
C. Adults who escaped natural infection or immunisation during childhood may be at increased risk of vaccine-preventable disease because of advanced age, the presence of certain chronic diseases, or occupation.
D. All of the above are correct.
All of the following statements are correct with respect to active immunisation EXCEPT which one?
A. Active immunisation promotes the production of antibodies against infectious agents or their toxins.
B. Active immunisation initiates cellular responses mediated by macrophages and lymphocytes.
C. Active immunisation provides immediate protection for the host.
D. Sensitised lymphocytes acting alone or antibodies interacting with lymphoid K-cells may recognise surface charges in virus-infected cells and target them for destruction.
All of the following statements are correct with respect to passive immunisation EXCEPT which one?
A. Immunoglobulins may be obtained from human or animal donors who have recovered from an infectious disease or who have been previously immunised.
B. Passive immunity against specific microorganisms may be conferred with the administration of immunoglobulins.
C. Passive immunisation usually affects an immune response in about 7-10 days.
D. Passive immunisation is useful when active immunisation is unavailable or contraindicated, or when an individual cannot form antibodies.
All of the following statements in relation to live attenuated vaccines are correct EXCEPT which one?
A. Live attenuated vaccines, because of their potential for infecting the fetus, should not be administered to pregnant women unless there is a high immediate risk of infection.
B. The administration of live attenuated vaccine is highly recommended for patients undergoing cancer chemotherapy, post-organ transplantation, and those on corticosteroids.
C. The administration of live attenuated vaccines is contraindicated to persons with known or suspected congenital or acquired immunodeficiency.
D. Live attenuated vaccines tend to have higher rates of adverse effects (particularly fever).
All of the following statements are true in relation to potential adverse reaction to vaccines EXCEPT which one?
A. In addition to the desired antigen, vaccines may also contain other components such as residual animal or human proteins, antibiotics (neomycin), preservatives (thimerosal) and stabilisers (aluminum phosphate), which may cause allergic reactions or toxicity.
B. The most common allergic component of vaccines is egg proteins found in vaccines prepared in chicken eggs or chicken embryonic cultures.
C. Subcutaneous administration of some vaccines, such as those containing aluminum phosphates can lead to local tissue necrosis.
D. Most adult vaccines are given by SC or IM injection, intravascular administration tends to reduce adverse effects and increase the immune response.
Immunisation strategies for OHCWs are predicated on:
A. Vaccines mandated or strongly recommended at the time of employment.
B. Vaccine recommended if another risk factor is presents.
C. The availability of immunoglobulins, which are administered to susceptible persons only in the event of inadvertent exposure to blood or OPIM.
D. All of the above are correct.
All of the following statements are correct in relation to the hepatitis B vaccine EXCEPT which one?
A. Universal immunisation is mandated for all OHCP.
B. Persons who decline the hepatitis B vaccination series must sign a copy of the Mandatory Hepatitis B Vaccination Declination Form.
C. Vaccination should be completed during training.
D. All of the above are correct.
All of the following statements in relation to hepatitis B vaccination are correct EXCEPT which one?
A. Primary immunisation with hepatitis B vaccine consists of three IM injections at 0, 1, and 6 months.
B. Post-vaccination confirmation of seroconversion is mandated 1-2 months after the third dose.
C. OHCP who do not develop an adequate antibody response to the primary vaccination series shall be offered a second 3-dose vaccine series.
D. If no antibody response occurs to the second hepatitis B vaccination series, testing for HBsAg is strongly recommended.
All of the following statements in relation to OHCP who failed to seroconvert following two HBV vaccination series are correct EXCEPT which one? Such OHCP __________________.
A. are at risk of HBV infection after percutaneous or permucosal exposure
B. should be administered hepatitis B immune globulin within a week of exposure (ideally within 24 hours)
C. in addition to HBIG, should receive a complete series of the hepatitis B vaccine, if not previously vaccinated
D. should receive a second dose of HBIG 30 days after the first dose if the HB vaccibe is declined
All of the following statements are correct in relation to the influenza vaccine EXCEPT which one?
A. It is strongly recommended that all OHCP, including those in training, be vaccinated annually against influenza.
B. The virologic basis for the annual influenza vaccine is the emergence of new influenza virus variant from frequent antigenic change.
C. The live attenuated intranasal influenza vaccine is the vaccine of choice for OHCP.
D. Antiviral agents with activity against influenza viruses are available but they are not substitutes for the influenza vaccine.
All of the following statements are correct in relation to the MMR vaccine EXCEPT which one?
A. It is strongly recommended that all OHCP be immune to measles, mumps, and rubella.
B. Immunity to rubella in women of childbearing age should not be a concern in healthcare setting because congenital rubella in the US is no longer considered a public health threat.
C. The trivalent MMR vaccine is the vaccine of choice for routine adult vaccination.
D. The MMR vaccine contains live attenuated measles, mumps, and rubella viruses.
Immune to the varicella-zoster virus can be confirmed by all of the following methods EXCEPT which one?
A. Physician-diagnosed varicella (chickenpox) or herpes zoster.
B. Laboratory evidence of VZV immunity.
C. Age-appropriate vaccination against VZV.
D. Evidence based on maternal recollection.
Which of the following is a high-potency formulation vaccine recommended for OHCP older than 60 years of age for the prevention of herpes zoster?
A. Varivax
B. Zostavax
C. VZIG
D. None of the above are correct.
All of the following statements are correct relative to tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis EXCEPT which one?
A. Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis are bacterial infections.
B. The Td vaccine contains tetanus and diphtheria toxoids.
C. OHCP with uncertain history of primary vaccination should receive and initial dose of Tdap followed by two doses of Td.
D. Td is recommended as part of wound management.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the HPV?
A. The HPV may be acquired occupationally by OHCP through a cut, abrasion, or small tear in the outer layer of skin or mucous membranes.
B. High-risk strains of HPV may cause cervical cancer and contribute to cancer of the mouth and upper respiratory tract.
C. The recommended HPV for OHCP is Gardasil .
D. All of the above are correct.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Neisseria meningitidis ?
A. Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted from the respiratory tract into the bloodstream and causes inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord.
B. OHCP who are immunocompromised should receive two doses of conjugated (if <55 years old) or one dose of unconjugated (if ≥55 years old) vaccine.
C. All OHCP adults should receive a single dose of conjugated (if <55 years old) or unconjugated (if ≥55 years old) vaccine.
D. All of the above are correct.
All of the following statements are correct with respect to Streptococcus pneumoniae EXCEPT which one?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae organisms commonly colonize the respiratory tract and are spread via airborne droplets.
B. All adults with compromised immune system and the elderly are high risk of infection.
C. The conjugated vaccine (Prevnar 13 ) is indicated for those between 2-64 years of age with increased susceptibility.
D. The polysaccharide vaccine (Pneumovax 23 ) is indicated for those ≥65 years old.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the hepatitis A virus?
A. The HAV is transmitted primarily by the fecal-oral route, either person-to-person contact or consumption of contaminated food or water.
B. HAV vaccination is recommended for all adults with chronic liver disease, illicit drug users, and those at risk of healthcare-associated exposure.
C. There are two inactivated hepatitis A whole-virus vaccines and a combination hepatitis A and B vaccine.
D. All of the above are correct.
Which of the following statements are correct in relation to documentation of vaccination and immune status of OHCP?
A. An immunisation record should be established for each OHCP at the time of initial employment.
B. At each subsequent immunisation encounter, the record should be updated.
C. If there is any doubt as to the immune status of an OHCP, it is best to assume that the person is not immune.
D. All of the above are correct.
The decision to immunize OHCP against a specific pathogen is based on all of the following EXCEPT which one?
A. An assessment of the risk of infection.
B. The consequences of natural unmodified illness.
C. Availability of a safe and effective vaccine.
D. Cost
